hist-brewing: crystal and Vienna malt

NATHAN T Moore NTMOORE at SMTPGATE.DPHE.STATE.CO.US
Fri Dec 8 06:41:10 PST 2000


Just to clarify, I was not trying to say that ALL oats and rye were unmalted, just that from my reading it is apparent that atleast some of the time, unmalted rye and oats where used.  For example in this recipe from Harrison's, preface to Hollinshed's Chronicles, 1587, it is apparent that the wheats and oats where likley not malted from how thge recipe was written:

"Having therefore groond eight bushels of good malt upon our querne, where the toll is saved, she addeth unto it half a bushel of wheat meale, and so much of otes small groond"

or this from Richard Arnold, "Customs of London", 1503

"To make 60 barrels of single beer, use 10 quarters of malt, 2 quarters of wheat, and 2 quarters of oats, with 40 pounds of hops."


 But also, as Scotti says, it also appears that the these adjuncts were sometimes malted. This example from The Dormostroi (Russian, 1533-1625) indicates to me that the oats or rye must of been malted, because the word "or" is used, indicating that the ale could be made of just rye or oats:

"When beer is brewed from barley, oats, or rye, or when hops are steamed, you must supervise the fermentation and siphoning off yourself. "

Sorry for the limited examples, it is all I have available from work, but I think it shows what I am getting at.

And in my statement, I was saying that in many recipes, if we assume that the oats and rye were unmalted, it appears that high levels of unmalted adjuncts were used, and I think it is a safe assumptions in many recipes, especially were malt is differentiated from oats or rye, that the oats and rye were likely unmalted.  The reason I used the fords "if" and "assume" was to make it clear that this is just an assumption because of the limited details available.  for example, it appears in the 1st two recipes given above that the oats and wheat were not malted, however, there is no way to be sure.

Nate

>>> <PBLoomis at aol.com> 12/05/00 06:27PM >>>
In a message dated 12/5/00 10:53:05 AM Central Standard Time, 
NTMOORE at SMTPGATE.DPHE.STATE.CO.US writes:

> assuming that the oats and rye were not malted.
>
    But why are you assuming that?  There are some recipes, 
such as the Doomsday Ale (1222AD) where the oat percentage 
is so high, that it *has* to be malted or they would have wound
up with porridge and a stuck mash!  If they were malting oats in
1222, why wouldn't they have been doing so 100 or 200 years 
later?  Or 400 years earlier?
    Scotti-

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